Kagan “redistribution of speech” is not “itself an illegitimate end”, 1996 University of Chicago Law Review,“Private Speech, Public Purpose: The Role of Governmental Motive in First Amendment Doctrine.”
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or of the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances. 1st Amendment, United States Constitution
My only question is, what part of “no law” doesn’t Kagan understand?